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Ставка НДС:LIST OF MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS IN NEUROSURGERY
1. EPIDURAL HEMATOMAS ARE FREQUENTLY FOLLOWED BY:
a) skull fractures
b) nasal liquorrhoea
c) auricular liquorrhoea
d) ventricular hematomas
e) pneumocephalus
2. EPIDURAL HEMATOMAS ARE MOSTLY LIMITED BY:
a) cerebral cortex
b) choroid plexuses
c) falciform processus
d) tentorium cerebelli
e) skull sutures
3. ACUTE TRAUMATIC INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE CHARACTERIZED BY:
a) Foster-Kennedy syndrome
b) pulsatile exophthalmus
c) symptom “lucid period”
d) Bruns’ syndrome
e) complete block of subarachnoid space during Queckenstedt test
4. ACUTE TRAUMATIC INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE CHARACTERIZED BY:
a) anisocoria
b) anisocytosis
c) hemibalismus
d) hemihyperaesthesia
e) hemiathetosis
5. ACUTE TRAUMATIC INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE CHARACTERIZED BY:
a) hemiparesis or hemiplegia on the side of hematoma
b) hemiparesis or hemiplegia on the contralateral side
c) hemianaesthesia or hemiplegia on the side of hematoma
d) choreoathetosis on the contralateral side
e) hemibalismus on the contralateral sided
6. ACUTE TRAUMATIC INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS FREQUENTLY MANIFEST WITH:
a) hypersalivation
b) hyperhydrosis
c) seizures
d) acute adrenal failure
e) toxic shock
7. BRADYCARDIA, HEMIPARESIS AND MIDRIASIS ARE CLASSIС:
a) carotid-cavernous fistula
b) Arnold-Chiari anomaly
c) pituitary tumor
d) compression vascular neuropathy
e) traumatic intracranial hematoma
8. DURING DECOMPRESSIVE SKULL TREPANATION:
a) dura mater is dissected
b) dura mater is never cut open
9. SOURCES FOR FORMATION OF EPIDURAL HEMATOMAS ARE:
a) anterior choroid artery
b) pial veins
c) choroid plexuses of the lateral ventricles
d) choroid plexus of the 4th ventricle
e) arteries of the circle of Willis
10. SOURCES FOR FORMATION OF SUBDURAL HEMATOMAS ARE:
a) anterior choroid artery
b) pial veins
c) choroid plexuses of the lateral ventricles
d) d choroid plexus of the 4th ventricle
e) arteries of the circle of Willis
11. THERE EXIST THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS:
a) epidural
b) intradural
c) subdural
d) intracerebral
e) intraventricular
12. MAJOR TYPES OF MEMORY DISORDERS IN CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA ARE:
a) congrade amnesia
b) anterograde amnesia
c) retrograde amnesia
d) cognitive amnesia
13. ANISOCORIA IN RIGHT-SIDE SUBDURAL HEMATOMA PRESENTS WITH:
a) left-side myosis
b) right-side ptosis
c) left-side mydriasis
d) right-side mydriasis
14. THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF PRESSED SKULL FRACTURES ARE DISTINGUISHED:
a) impressive
b) expressive
c) depressive
d) linear
e) perforate
15. CAUSES OF EARLY PROLAPSE OF THE BRAIN ARE:
a) brain edema and swelling
b) development of encephalitis
c) development of brain abscess
d) acute hydrocephalus
e) formation of intracranial hematomas
16 ACUTE INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE THOSE WHICH FORM:
a) during the first 5 days
b) during the first 14 days
c) during the first 3 days
d) during the first 10 days
17. SUBACUTE INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE THOSE WHICH FORM:
a) during the first 3 days
b) during the first 3-14 days
c) during the first 7-20 days
d) during the first 1-30 days
18. CHRONIC INTRACRANIAL HEMATOMAS ARE THOSE WHICH FORM:
a) in 3 days
b) in 14 days
c) in 10 days
d) in 7 days
e) in 12 days
19. CAUSES OF BRAIN COMPRESSION IN CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA ARE:
a) intracranial hematomas
b) impressed skull fractures
Tenses Multiple Choice Questions Pdf
c) fractures of the cranial basis
d) pneumocephalus
e) subdural hydromas
20. CAUSES OF BRAIN COMPRESSION IN CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA ARE:
a) perforated skull fractures
b) brain edema and swelling
c) foreign bodies
d) subarachnoid bleeding
e) epidural hematomas
21. AS BRAIN DECOMPRESSION MEASURES IN CCT THE FOLLOWING ARE PERFORMED:
a) decompression trepanations
b) defect cranioplasty
c) liquidation of the impressed fracture
d) removal of the intracranial hematomas
22. PRIMARY CRANIOPLASTY OF THE SKULL DEFECT IS PERFORMED:
a) in the first 2 days
b) up to 14 days
c) to 2 months
d) after 2 months
23. PRIMARILY-POSTPONED CRANIOPLASTY OF THE SKULL DEFECTS IS PERFORMED:
a) in the first 2 days
b) up to 14 days
c) up to 2 months
d) after 2 months
24. IN DIFFUSE AXONAL INJURY CLINICAL PRESENTATION IS DETERMINED BY MORPHOLOGICAL CHANGES OCCURING AT THE LEVEL:
a) in the cortical regions of the frontal lobes
b) in the deep regions of the brain with impairment of the white matter, corpus callosum and subcortical structures
c) in the medulla with lesions of the nuclei of the cranial nerves
d) in the upper cervical region of the spinal cord and in the medulla
25. DIFFUSE AXONAL INJURY MOST OFTEN PRESENTS WITH:
a) prolonged comatose status
b) vegetative status
c) practically always with meningeal syndrome
d) pyramid-extrapyramid tetrasyndrome
e) mild transient and focal symptoms
26. IN THE SYNDROME OF PROLONGED COMPRESSION OF THE HEAD PRIMARY SURGICAL DEBRIDEMENT OF THE HEAD WOUNDS:
a) is early and is performed during the first hours in the injury admission ward
b) is postponed and is performed in the specialized facilities
c) is late and is performed in the general surgical inpatient departments
d) is early and is performed in the general surgical inpatient departments
27. FATTY EMBOLIZATION OF THE CEREBRAL VESSELS IN CCT IS OBSERVED:
a) in fracture of the cranial basis
b) in multiple fractures of the calvarium
c) in joint cranioskeletal trauma
d) in gunshot skull fractures
e) in isolated intracranial hematomas
28. DURING EMERGENCY MEDICAL CARE IN CCT FOREIGN BODIES OFF THE BRAIN:
a) should be necessarily removed
b) are removed through active aspiration and dissection of the brain substance
c) are not removed
d) the foreign bodies with even edges made of hard material are predominantly removed
29. COMBINED CCT IS:
a) constellation of various injuries including CCT which develop as the result of simultaneous impact of various damaging factors
b) constellation of various injuries including CCT which develop as the result of simultaneous impact of mechanical factor on several regions of the body
c) fractures of the bones of the calvarium which combine with intracranial hematomas
d) intracranial hematomas which combine with trauma of the facial skeleton
30. JOINT CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA IS:
a) constellation of various injuries including CCT which develop as the result of simultaneous impact of mechanical factor on several regions of the body
b) constellation of various injuries including CCT which develop as the result of simultaneous impact of various damaging factors
c) combination of fractures of the bones of calvarium with intracranial hematomas or liquorrhoea
31. ACCORDING TO GLASGOW COMA SCALE A SEVERE CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA WOULD SCORE:
a) 1-2 points
b) 3-7 points
c) 8-10 points
d) 8 points
32. ACCORDING TO GLASGOW COMA SCALE A MODERATELY SEVERE CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA WOULD SCORE:
a) 1-2 points
b) 3-7 points
c) 5-7points
d) 8-12 point
33. ACCORDING TO GLASGOW COMA SCALE A MILD CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA WOULD SCORE:
a) 3-5 points
b) 7-10 points
c) 13-15 points
d) 10-12 point
34. NASAL LIQUORRHOEA MOST OFTEN OCCURS IN FRACTIONS IN THE REGION OF:
a) frontal sinus
b) petrosus part of the temporal bone pyramid
c) cribriform plate
d) ethmoidal bon
35. AURICULAR LIQUORRHOEA MOST OFTEN OCCURS IN FRACTIONS IN THE REGION OF:
a) petrosus part of the temporal bone pyramid
b) frontal sinus
c) cribriform plate
d) sphenoidal sinus
e) ethmoidal bon
36. SUPPLEMENTAL METHODS IN THE DIAGNOSTICS OF LIQUORRHOEA ARE:
a) glucotest
b) endoscopic examination
c) Echo-encephalography
d) radioisotope gamma-cisternography
e) CT-cisternography
f) carotid angiography
37. MENINGEEAL SYNDROME IS MOST OFTEN IN THE CLINICAL PRESENTATION OF:
a) brain concussion
b) brain contusion
c) chronic subdural hematoma
d) chronic subdural hydroma
38. ACCORDING TO THE TYPE OF WOUND CANAL THERE ARE THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF GUNSHOT CRANIOCEREBRAL INJURIES:
a) perforating
b) blind
c) open
d) tangent
e) subaponeurotic
f) ricoche
39. INFLAMMTORY CRANIOCEREBRAL COMPLICATIONS OF THE CCT INCLUDE:
a) ventriculitis
b) liquorrhoea
c) abscess
d) meningitis
e) encephalitis
40 NON-INFLAMMTORY CRANIOCEREBRAL COMPLICATIONS OF THE CCT INCLUDE:
a) posttraumatic granulomas
b) dislocation syndromes
c) thromboembolism of cerebral vessels, brain infarction
d) late prolapse of the brain
e) collapse of the brain
41. EXTRACRANIAL COMPLICATIONS:
a) shock
b) DIC syndrome
c) pneumonia
d) liquorrhoea
e) acute cardiovascular failure, cardiac rhythm disorders
42. IN WHICH CASES SHOULD CCT BE CONSIDERED AN OPEN ONE:
a) injury of the skull and brain with contusions and wounds of the soft tissues without lesion of the aponeurosis
b) injury of the skull and brain with contusions and wounds of the soft tissues with the lesion of aponeurosis
c) all cases of CCT with liquorrhoea
d) CCT with any types of calvarium fractures
43. PENETRATING CCT IS CONSIDERED TO BE:
a) open CCT with rupture of the arachnoid
b) open CCT with injury of the dura mater
c) open CCT with pneumocephalus
d) open CCT with hydrocephalus
44. THE FOLLOWING OCCURS IN BRAIN CONCUSSIOS:
a) only changes in functioning of the neural cells
b) solitary ruptures of axons in the diencephalic regions of the brain
c) ultrastructural changes such as injury of the synaptic membranes, cellular organelles, redistribution of the cellular fluid
d) small focal changes in the cortical regions of frontal and temporal lobes as well as microscopic hemorrhages in the paraventricular zones
45. THE COURSE OF CCT HAS THE FOLLOWING PERIODS:
a) acute
b) subacute
c) intermediate
d) final
e) remote
46. COMPRESSION OF THE BRAIN IN PNEUMOCEPHALUS IS POSSIBLE IN THE PRESENCE OF:
a) valve mechanism in fractures of the cranial basis
b) permanent communication of the cranial cavity with the environment with the defect of calvarium in the temporal region
c) presence of the defect of the arachnoid mater in the region of the temporal bone pyramid
d) presence of the defect of the dura mater in the region of the temporal bone pyramid
47. CEPHALOHEMATOMA IS A:
a) subcutaneous hematoma
b) subaponeurotic hematoma
c) subperiostal hematoma
d) subdural hematoma
e) multi-storey hematoma
48. THE OPTIMAL TREATMENT METHOD IN CEPHALOHEMATOMAS IS:
a) dissection with further drainage
b) puncture removal
c) total removal with its capsule
d) total removal with bone resection
e) decompressive cranial trepanation
49. TYPES OF CONSCIOUSNESS DISORDERS IN CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA ARE:
a) torpor
b) sopor
c) coma
d) shock
e) amnesia
50. FOR BRAIN CONCUSSION TYPICAL ARE:
a) hort-term unconsciousness
b) multiple vomiting
c) one-time vomiting
d) headache
e) presence of mild dislocation syndrome
51. AMONG THE TRASIENT FOCAL SYMPTOMS IN BRAIN CONCUSSION THE MOST FREQUENT IS:
a) spontaneous horizontal nystagmus
b) Brudzinskiy symptom
c) Marinesku-Radovici symptom
d) Lasseg’s symptom
e) weakness of convergence
52. THE METHOD OF CHICE IN THERAPEUTIC TACTICS IN TRAUMATIC SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGES IS:
a) urgent surgical intervention aimed at arresting of the bleeding and decompression of the brain
b) unloading lumbar punctures
c) selective neurosurgical intervention aimed at decompression of the brain in 7-10 days after injury
d) stereotactic clipping of the pia mater vessels in 7-10 days after injury
53. SUBDURAL HEMATOMAS ARE LOCATED:
a) between the aponeurosis and the periosteum
b) between the dura and the arachnoid mater
c) between the dura and the periosteum
d) in the great occipital cistem
54. IN CASE OF SUBDURAL HEMATOMA AND DISLOCATION OF THE BRAIN THE FOOLOWING IS INDICATED:
a) urgent neurosurgical intervention
b) dynamic follow-up in the intensive care unit
c) hemostatic therapy and dynamic follow-up in the neurologic department
d) urgent lumbar puncture, especially in hematomas of the posterior cranial fosse
55. METHOD OF SURGICAL TREATMENT OF ACUTE SUBDURAL HEMATOMAS IS:
a) removal through the drilled openings
b) removal during skull trepanation
c) endovascular removal
d) stereotactic removal
e) puncture removal of the hematoma
56. SUBDURAL HYDROMAS ARE:
a) subarachnoid accumulation of CSF
b) accumulation of exudate under the dura
c) accumulation of CSF under the dura
d) accumulation of liquid blood under the dura
e) accumulation of transsudate under the dura
57. METHODS OF SURGICAL TREATMENT OF SUBDURAL HYDROMAS:
a) puncture emptying through the drilled opening
b) stereotactic removal
c) prolonged endolumbar drainage
d) endovascular removal
58. PECULIARITIES OF CCT IN THE ELDERLY AND SENILE AGE:
a) hypertensive syndrome is mildly prominent
b) hypertensive syndrome is almost always present
c) severe consciousness disorders develop frequently
d) relatively severe lesions of the brain
e) brain lesions are relatively milder than those in young and middle-aged patients
59. PECULIARITIES OF CCT IN ALCOHOLIC INTOXICATION ARE:
a) relatively mild course
b) consciousness disorders are often more prominent and prolonged
c) quick progression of intracranial hypertension
d) hypertensive syndrome is mildly prominent
e) prominent vestibular and vegetative disorders
f) frequently “blurry” symptom-free period in intracranial hematomas
g) decreased critical attitude to their own status
60. GROWING CRANIAL BONE FRACTURES ARE MOST TYPICAL FOR:
a) children younger than 3 years old
b) elderly and senior people
c) for patients with skull base fractures
d) for patients with injuries of the caldarium
61. PECULIARITY OF EPIDURAL HEMATOMAS IN CHILDREN IS
a) limitation to a single bone (along the suture line)
b) frequently spreads beyond the limits of cranial suture
62. SHOCK IN ISOLATED CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA:
a) is rather frequent (in 10-15% of cases)
b) is practically never observed (1-2% cases)
63. IN CASE OF EPIDURAL HEMATOMA THE FOLLOWING IS INDICATED:
a) urgent neurosurgical intervention
b) urgent lumbar puncture to determine the size of hematoma
c) dynamic follow-up (control CT or MRI) in the settings of intensive care unit
64. THE METHOD OF CHOICE FOR SURGICAL TREATMENT OF ACUTE EPIDURAL HEMATOMAS IS:
a) removal by means of trepanation
b) endovascular removal
c) puncture removal through the drilled openings
d) stereotactic removal
65. MAJOR INDIRECT MECHANISMS OF SPINE INJURY ARE:
a) hyperflexion
b) traction
c) hyperextension
d) rotation
e) axial compression
66. A YOUNG PATIENT HAS BEEN FOUND UNCONSCIOUS ON THE STREET. BLOODPRESSURE 70/0, PULSE 120, SKIN IS PALE, COLD, CONSCIOUSNESS DISORDER OF COMA II, CONTACT IS NON-PRODUCTIVE, PUPILS ARE MODERATELY DILATED, FLACCID REACTION TO LIGHT, NO FOCAL SYMPTOMS WERE DETECTED. DURING EXAMINATION A CONTUSED SUPERFICIAL WOUND HAS BEEN FOUND IN THE RIGHT TEMPORO-FRONTAL REGION. WHICH DEPARTMENT SHOULD THIS PATIENT BE HOSPITALIZED TO?
a) traumatologic
b) neurosurgical
c) neurologic
d) general surgical
e) cardiologic
67. PATIENT HAS BEEN TRANSPORTED TO NEUROSYRGICAL DEPARTMENT FROM THE SITE OF A CAR ACCIDENT IN A SEVERE STATUS (GCS – 7 POINTS). THERE IS A PERIPHERAL PALSY OF MIMIC MUSCLES OF THE LEFT HALF OF THE FACE, RIGHT-SIDE HEMIPARESIS, POSITIVE KERNIG’S SYMPTOM, LEFT PUPIL IS DILATED, WEAK REACTION TO LIGHT, SUBCUTANEOUS HEMATOMA IN THE LEFT TEMPORAL REGION. BLOOD PRESSURE 140/70, PULSE 56. CHOOSE THE MOST INFORMATIVE METHOD OF INVESTIGATION:
a) selective angiography
b) encephaloscintigraphy
c) lumbar puncture
d) computed tomography
e) electroencephalography
68. PATIENT HAS BEEN TRANSPORTED TO NEUROSYRGICAL DEPARTMENT FROM THE SITE OF A CAR ACCIDENT IN A SEVERE STATUS (GCS – 7 POINTS). THERE IS A PERIPHERAL PALSY OF MIMIC MUSCLES OF THE LEFT HALF OF THE FACE, RIGHT-SIDE HEMIPARESIS, POSITIVE KERNIG’S SYMPTOM, LEFT PUPIL IS DILATED, WEAK REACTION TO LIGHT, SUBCUTANEOUS HEMATOMA IN THE LEFT TEMPORAL REGION. BLOOD PRESSURE 140/70, PULSE 56. ON THE CT SCANS AN EPIDURAL HEMATOMA HAS BEEN FOUND IN THE LEFT TEMPORAL REGION. DISLOCATION OF MIDLINE STRUCTURES IS 6 MM. CHOOSE THE THERAPEUTIC TACTICS:
a) dynamic follow-up with control computed tomography
b) urgent neurosurgical intervention
c) unloading lumbar punctures and dynamic follow-up
d) urgent puncture of the lateral ventricles
69. A 35-YEAR OLD MAN HAS BEEN ADMITTED TO THE NEUROSURGICAL DEPARTMENT IN A SEVERE STATUS AFTER A CAR ACCIDENT. IN THE ADMISSION WARD HE BECAME CONSCIOUS, BUT DURIN THE EXAMINATION HE BECAME UNCONSCIOUS AGAIN. SEIZURE HAS OCCURRED. CLINICALLY: RIGHT-SIDE HEMIPARESIS, LEFT-SIDE MYDRIASIS, PULSE 52, BLOOD PRESSURE 160/80. A LINEAR FRACTURE OF THE LEFT TEMPORAL BONE HAS BEEN REVEALED DURING CRANIOGRAPHY. PRELIMINARY DIAGNOSIS:
a) closed CCT, brain concussion
b) closed CCT, brain contusion
c) closed CCT, acute epidural hematoma
d) closed CCT, subarachnoid hemorrhag
70. A 35-YEAR OLD MAN HAS BEEN ADMITTED TO THE NEUROSURGICAL DEPARTMENT IN A SEVERE STATUS AFTER A CAR ACCIDENT. IN THE ADMISSION WARD HE BECAME CONSCIOUS, BUT DURIN THE EXAMINATION HE BECAME UNCONSCIOUS AGAIN. SEIZURE HAS OCCURRED. CLINICALLY: RIGHT-SIDE HEMIPARESIS, LEFT-SIDE MYDRIASIS, PULSE 52, BLOOD PRESSURE 160/80. A LINEAR FRACTURE OF THE LEFT TEMPORAL BONE HAS BEEN REVEALED DURING CRANIOGRAPHY. WHAT OTHER METHODS SHOULD BE USED TO VERIFY THE DIAGNOSIS?
a) electroencephalography
b) Echo-encephalography
c) lumbar puncture
d) pneumoencephalography
e) computed tomography
71. A 28-YEAR OLD PATIENT IS REPORTING HEADACHE WHICH INCREASES IN THУ MORNING TIME, NAUSEA, VERTIGO. PERIODICALLY FEVER IS OBSERVED UP TO 38ºC. DURING THE RECENT 3 WEEKS PATIENT'S EYESIGHT HAS WORSENED. 4 MONTHS EARLIER HE HAS BEEN HOSPITALIZED IN THE NEUROLOGIC DEPARTMENT OF THE DISTRICT HOSPITAL DUE TO BRAIN CONCUSSION, CONTUSED WOUND OF THE RIGHT TEMPORAL REGION. DURING THE INVESTIGATION INITIAL MANIFESTATIONS OF OPTIC NERVE DISK EDEMA ARE DETECTED AS WELL AS DILATION OF THE LEFT PUPIL, MILD RIGHT-SIDED HEMIPARESIS PREDOMINANTLY IN THE UPPER EXTREMITIES. SET THE PRELIMINARY DIAGNOSIS:
a) chronic subdural hematoma
b) posttraumatic brain abscess
c) subdural hematoma
d) posttraumatic carotid-cavernous fistula
e) late prolapse of the brain
72. A 28-YEAR OLD PATIENT IS REPORTING HEADACHE WHICH INCREASES IN THE MORNING TIME, NAUSEA, VERTIGO. PERIODICALLY FEVER IS OBSERVED UP TO 38ºC. DURING THE RECENT 3 WEEKS PATIENT'S EYESIGHT HAS WORSENED. 4 MONTHS EARLIER HE HAS BEEN HOSPITALIZED IN THE NEUROLOGIC DEPARTMENT OF THE DISTRICT HOSPITAL DUE TO BRAIN CONCUSSION, CONTUSED WOUND OF THE RIGHT TEMPORAL REGION. DURING THE INVESTIGATION INITIAL MANIFESTATIONS OF OPTIC NERVE DISK EDEMA ARE DETECTED AS WELL AS DILATION OF THE LEFT PUPIL, MILD RIGHT-SIDED HEMIPARESIS PREDOMINANTLY IN THE UPPER EXTREMITIES. WHICH SUPPLEMENTAL INVESTIGATION HAS TO BE PERFORMED TO SET THE DIAGNOSIS?
a) pneumoencephalography
b) electroencephalography
c) magnetic resonance imaging
d) ventriculography
e) transcranial dopplerography
73. CLINICAL SIGNS OF DISLOCATION IN THE CERVICAL SPINE ARE:
a) forced position of the head, severe pain, especially during head movements, neck muscle tension
b) free course of the disease, mild crackle during maximal rotations of the head
c) continuous vomiting, generalized epileptic seizures, presence of alternating syndrome
74. HEMATOMYELIA IS A:
a) hemorrhage under the spinal meninges
b) hemorrhage into the white matter of the spinal cord
c) hemorrhage into the grey matter of the spinal cord
75. MAJOR METHOD FOR TREATMENT OF HEMATOMYELIA IS:
a) urgent neurosurgical intervention with resection of obviously non-viable regions
b) conservative (medical) treatment (hemostatic therapy, hypothermia etc.)
c) combination of a neurosurgical intervention aimed at resection of non-viable regions of the spinal cord and intensive conservative treatment
76. CAUSES OF SPINAL CORD COMPRESSION IN TRAUMA ARE:
a) spinal meningeal hematomas
b) bones or their fragments
c) ligaments
d) foreign bodies
e) intervertebral disks
77. MOST TYPICAL SIGNS OF INJURY OF THE THORACIC SPINE AT THE LEVEL OF TH4 –TH5 ARE:
a) spastic tetraplegia, central-type disorders of urinary bladder function
b) superior flaccid paralysis and inferior spastic paralysis
c) inferior spastic paralysis, central-type disorders of urinary bladder function
d) inferior flaccid paralysis, peripheral-type disorders of urinary bladder function
78. MOST TYPICAL SIGNS OF INJURY OF THE CERVICAL SPINE AT THE LEVEL OF C3 –C4 ARE:
a) a spastic tetraplegia, central-type disorders of urinary bladder function
b) b superior flaccid paralysis and inferior spastic paralysis, central-type disorders of urinary bladder function
c) c superior spastic paralysis, central-type disorders of urinary bladder function
d) d spastic tetraplegia, peripheral-type disorders of urinary bladder function
79. WHICH SPINAL CORD INJURY SHOULD UNDERGO SURGICAL TREATMENT?
a) concussion
b) contusion
c) compression
d) complete anatomic rupture
e) hematomyelia
80. TO PREVENT UROSEPSIS IN PATIENTS WITH SPINAL CORD INJURY AND SPINAL SHOCK PHENOMENA THE FOLLOWING ARE NECESSARY:
a) constant catheterization of the urinary bladder with periodical irrigation with antiseptics
b) application of the inflow-outflow Monroe system
c) urethral plastics
d) subarachnoid space drainage
81. SHORT-TERM INFLAMMATORY COMPLICATIONS OF THE VERTEBROSPINAL INJURY INCLUDE:
a) purulent epiduritis
b) purulent meningomyelitis
c) spinal cord abscess
d) posttraumatic aseptic arachnoiditis
82. WHICH IS THE MAJOR ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATION FOR SPINAL PUNCTURE:
a) high blood pressure
b) soporous consciousness disorders
c) pregnancy
d) acute urinary retention
e) hypertensive syndrome
83. WHICH RADIOGRAPHIC SIGNS ARE NOT THE EVIDENCE OF INCREAST INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE?
a) enlarged digital impressions
b) emphasized sutures of the calvarium
c) osteoporosis of the dorsum of sella turcica
d) hyperostosis of the temporal bone
84. INDICATE THE REASONS OF INCREASED INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE:
a) brain abscess
b) brain tumor
c) edema-swelling of the brain, trauma
d) all of the mentioned above
85. SELECT INDICATIONS FOR CAROTID CEREBRAL ANGIOGRAPHY:
a) meningitis
b) suspicion of the cerebellar tumor
c) suspicion of the craniospinal tumor
d) spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage
e) none of the abovementioned
86. WHICH ARE THE MAJOR CLINICAL SIGNS OF TRAUMATIC SUBARACHNOIDAL HEMORRHAGE:
a) blood in the CSF
b) severe headache
c) meningeal signs
d) fever
e) all of the abovementioned
87. IN WHAT NOSOLOGIC FORMS OF BRAIN INJURY DISEASE IS SYMPTOM “LUSID PERIOD”:
a) brain contusion
b) brain concussion
c) subdural hematoma
d) subarachnoid hemorrhage
e) none of the listed
88. TRANSITION FROM PROLONGED COMA TO STABLE OR TRASIENT VEGETATIVE STATUS IS TAKING PLACE IN:
a) brain concussion
b) diffuse axonal lesion of the brain
c) subdural hematoma
d) brain tumor
89. WHICH OF THE LISTED METHODS OF INVESTIGATION SHOULD THE PATIENT WITH CCT UNDERGO FIRST OF ALL:
a) chest X-ray
b) general blood analysis
c) ultrasonography of chest organs
d) skull X-ray in two projections
e) ECG
90. WHICH OF THE LISTED SYMPTOMS IS NOT INFROMATIVE IN FRACTURE OF THE CRANIAL BASIS:
a) auricular liquorrhoea
b) “eyeglasses” symptom
c) eosinophilia
d) subarachnoid hemorrhage
91. DETECTION OF BLOOD IN THE CSF IS TYPICAL IN:
a) brain concussion
b) epidural hematoma
c) spinal cord concussion
d) subarachnoid hemorrhage
e) tuberculous meningitis
92. PERSISTENT ANISOCRIA WITH STAGNANT DISKS OF THE OPTIC NERVES CAN BE OBSERVED IN CASE OF:
a) chronic subdural hematoma
b) contusion of the cervical spinal cord
c) subarachnoid hemorrhage
d) linear fracture of the temporal bone
e) brain concussion
93. INDICATE MAJOR CLINICAL SIGNS OF THE CEREBELLAR TUMOR:
a) insomnia
b) unsteady gait
c) position headaches
d) impaired movement coordination
e) none of the abovementioned
94. INDICATE MAJOR CLINICAL SIGNS OF THE TUMOR OF PONTO-CEREBELLAR ANGLE:
a) tinnitus in one ear with decreased hearing in the same ear
b) vestibular disorders
c) spontaneous nystagmus
d) polydipsia
e) none of the abovementioned
95. WHICH OF THE LISTED SYMPTOMS INDICATE EOSINOPHILIC ADENOMA:
a) acromegaly, gigantism
b) amenorrhoea, decreased libido
c) bitemporal hemianopia
d) fever
e) none of the abovementioned
96. IN BASOPHILIC PITUITARY ADENOMA (ITSENKO-CUSHING’S SYNDROME) THE FOLLOWING CLINICAL SIGNS ARE OBSERVED:
a) cachexia
b) arterial hypotension
c) callergy
d) fever
e) none of the abovementioned
97. INDICATE DIRECT RADIOLOGIC SIGNS OF THE BRAIN TUMOR:
a) disconnection of sutures, their emphasis
b) dislocation of pineal body
c) hyperostosis or osteoporosis of the adjacent to the tumor bone section
d) bone destruction
e) none of the abovementioned
98. MENINGEAL TUMORS OF THE BRAIN DO NOT INCLUDE:
a) meningioma
b) sarcoma
c) glioblastoma
d) meningosarcoma
99. FOCAL NEUROLOGIC SYMPTOMS IN BRAIN TUMORS ARE DEVIDED INTO:
a) primary focal
b) secondary focal
c) neighboring symptoms
d) none of the abovementioned
100. FOSTER-KENNEDY SYMPTOM IS OBSERVED IN:
a) tumors of the pole of the frontal lobe
b) tumors of the occipital lobes
c) tumors of the temporal lobe
d) tumors of the parietal lobes
e) cerebellar tumors
101. FOR TUMORS OF THE PINEAL GLAND MOST TYPICAL IS:
a) endocrine and metabolic disorders
b) epileptic seizures
c) homonymic hemianopia
d) central paralysis
e) movement coordination disorders
102. WHICH OF THE LISTED FACTORS IS NOT TYPICAL FOR SPINAL OSTEOCHONDROSIS?
a) degenerative changes of the intervertebral disks
b) reactive changes in the vertebrae
c) reactive changes in the ligaments
d) impaired congruence of the intervertebral joints
e) osteoporosis of bodies and arches of the vertebrae
103. DIRECT CAUSES FOR INITIAL MANIFESTATIONS OF OSTEOCHONDROSIS ARE:
a) mechanical factor (weight lifting, abrupt movement)
b) weakening of the abdominal press after surgeries and deliveries
c) consequences of previous infections and hypothermia
d) all of the abovementioned
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104. WHICH OF THE SYMPTOMS IS NOT TYPICAL FOR SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE IN RUPTURE OF ARTERIAL ANEURISM OF CEREBRAL VESSELS:
a) Kernig’s symptom
b) Brudzinskiy’s symptom
c) occipital stiffness
d) paresis of the oculomotor nerve
e) Horner’s symptom
105. WHICH OF THE LISTED CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS IS NOT TYPICAL FOR ARTERIOVENOUS MALFORMATIONS OF THE BRAIN:
a) epileptic seizure
b) syndrome of the intracranial hypotension
c) recurrent ischemic disorders of the cerebral circulation
d) intracranial hemorrhage
106. INTRACRANIAL SURGERIES IN PROSOPALGIAS INCLUDE:
a) transection of the I branch of trigeminal nerve
b) Janet’s surgery
c) transection of the 2 branch of trigeminal nerve
d) transection of the 3 branch of trigeminal nerve
e) transection of glossopharyngeal nerve
107. IN WHAT TYPE OF PROSOPALGIA “STATUS NEURALGICUS” DEVELPS MOST FREQUENTLY?
a) trigeminal neuralgia
b) neuralgia of occipital nerves
c) glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
d) periodic facial neuralgia
e) migraine
108. WHICH OF THE LISTED FACTORS IS ETIOLOGIC FOR DEVELOPMENT OF PAIN PAROXYSM IN THE ZONE OF 5th PAIR OF CRANIAL NERVES?
a) foci of chronic infection in the oral cavity
b) narrowing of bone canals
c) malocclusion
d) compression of the nerve root by the superior cerebellar artery
e) all of the abovementioned
109. SYMPTOMATIC TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA CAN DEVELOP IN:
a) spinal cord tumors
b) arterial aneurism
c) narrowing of the bone canals
d) compression of the nerve root by superior cerebellar artery
e) all of the mentioned above
110. JANETT’S SURGERY IS PERFORMED IN CASE OF:
a) trigeminal neuralgia due to vaso-neural conflict
b) trigeminal neuralgia due to narrowing of bone canals
c) neuralgias of occipital nerves
d) neuralgias of glossopharyngeal nerve
e) neuralgias of cilliary ganglion
111. INFORMATIVE SYMPTOM IN DETECTION OF HYDROCEPHALUS IN:
a) increased motor activity
b) impaired statics
c) flaccidity, adynamia
d) increasing of the size of the head
e) increased excitability
112. WHAT METHOD OF TREATMENT OF HYDROCEPHALUS DO YOU KNOW?
a) perforation of the septum pellucidum
b) dissection of the cerebellar vermis
c) puncture of corpus callosum
d) ventriculoperitneostomy
e) brain tumor removal
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Head of the neurosurgery
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department, Professor V.A.Pyatikop
Multiple choice questions are, perhaps, the most often misused question types in assessment. Many teachers resort to their use only to test factual recall, or 'Remember'-type questions. However, multiple choice questions have great potential for assessing higher-level thinking skills IF you know how to write them.
Multiple choice questions have both advantages and limitations. Let's take a moment to review both.
Advantages:
1. They are the most versatile type of test item
- Broad range of objectives
- Multiple forms and variations
- Broad range of student populations (not first grade)
2. They are easy to score rapidly & accurately.
3. They are relatively efficient (more objectives in shorter time than essay, but not as efficient as matching or t/f)
4. They are relatively unsusceptible to score variation due to guessing.
5. They are relatively unaffected by response sets (patterns in responses).
Limitations:
1. Good multiple-choice items are difficult to construct.
2. Examinees are required only to recognize correct answers rather than to construct them.
3. They are often used to measure factual recall only.
4. They require more response time than other selected response items.
5. They provide an advantage to test-wise students (if they are poorly written, students can look for clues).
Let's begin by breaking down the parts of a multiple choice question. The question itself is referred to as the stem. There is typically one correct answer option, and the rest of the options are called distracters. Here's an example:
Instructions: For each of the following multiple choice questions, circle the letter that corresponds with the best answer provided.
1. Which phase of the water cycle would most likely take place if you put an open container of water in the warm sun?
a. Evaporation
b. Condensation
c. Precipitation
d. Collection
Here are some general guidelines for writing multiple choice questions.
1. Do NOT use multiple-choice items in situations where other assessment procedures would be more appropriate.
2. Each item should focus on a single problem that is presented clearly and completely in the stem.
3. All distracters should be plausible to examinees who are misinformed or less knowledgeable. Generally, this means that the alternatives should constitute a homogeneous set.
4. Items designed to assess understanding, problem solving ability, or other cognitive processes beyond the recall level must present a novel problem or situation.
5. Recurring words or ideas expressed in the alternatives should be moved to the stem.
6. All superfluous words and extraneous ideas should be excluded from the stem.
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7. Word each option so that it clearly states one and only one idea.
8. State the stem in positive form. Avoid negatively stated items if possible.
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9. Avoid including any extraneous clues to the correct answer.
- Word each option so that it is grammatically consistent with the stem.
- Avoid using overlapping options (where one is part of another).
- Avoid including verbal associations between the stem and the correct answer.
- Avoid making the correct answer consistently longer than the distracters.
- Avoid using “all of the above” as an option.
- Avoid using either complex multiple-choice or Type K items. (a and b, a and c, b and c, etc.)
- Randomly vary the location of the correct option so that positions “A”, “B”, “C” etc. are used about the same number of times, but not in any systematic order.
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10. Use “none of the above” as an option rarely, if at all.
11. Arrange the options in a vertical, tabular format rather than in a horizontal sequence.
12. After the test has been administered, carefully examine the pattern of responses to each item. Revise distracters that are either nonfunctional or too attractive.
Now that you are familiar with the guidelines, why don't you practice evaluating a few multiple choice items?